A 45 year old man with BMI 40 is referred to the endocrinologist after failure to reduce his body weight by diet and exercise. The physician prescribes him GLP-1 agonist.
What is the most likely mechanism of action of this drug?

Question

A 45 year old man with BMI 40 is referred to the endocrinologist  after failure to reduce his body weight by diet and exercise. The physician prescribes him GLP-1 agonist. 
 What is the most likely mechanism of action of this drug?

Accepted Answer

stimulation of insulin secretion and decrease glucagon secretion with inhibition of GIT motility and secretion

Answer

stimulation of glucagon secretion and decrease insulin secretion with stimulation of GIT motility and secretion

Answer

direct stimulation of the nucleus tractus solitaris and lateral hypothalamus

Answer

inhibition of ghrelin release and neuropeptide 1 secretion

Answer

stimulation of ghrelin release and neuropeptide 1 secretion with stimulation of GIT motility

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A 45 year old man with BMI 40 is referred to the endocrinologist after failure ...

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