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A portfolio invests in a risk-free asset and the market portfolio has an expected return of 7% and a standard deviation of 10%. Suppose risk-free rate is 5%, and the standard deviation on the market portfolio is 22%. For simplicity, assume that correlation between risk-free asset and the market portfolio is zero and that the risk-free asset has a zero standard deviation. According to the CAPM, which of the following statements is/are correct?