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Capital at start of planning period = $260
Asset at start of planning period = $2,720
Dividend ratio = 50%
Asset growth rate = 10%
ROA = 1%
If the bank’s capital target for next period is 9%, which of the following statements is TRUE?
For banks that have insufficient capital, which of the following is NOT a typical operating strategy to achieve capital adequacy?
For a bank with deficient capital ratios, which of the following actions could be taken to increase the capital ratios, holding everything else the same?
Under historical (book value) accounting methods, banks:
A bank has a profit margin of 5 percent, an asset utilization ratio of 11 percent, a target capital ratio of 8.33 percent, and a dividend payout ratio of 60 percent.
Hint: ROA = Profit Margin X Asset Utilisation Ratio
What is this bank's Internal Capital Generation Rate? (NOTE: By default, the unit of the answer is %. The answer must be input with two (2) decimal places, i.e. if the answer is 12%, please input 12.00)
Under Basel III, Common Equity Tier 1 capital must have the following essential characteristics EXCEPT:
The difference between the market value of assets and the market value of liabilities is:
Why do banks generally prefer lower capital requirements?
Which of the following instruments is considered to be the highest quality of regulatory capital under the Basel III capital adequacy framework?
A bank has a profit margin of 5 percent, an asset utilization ratio of 11 percent, a target capital ratio of 8 percent, and a retention ratio of 60 percent.
Note that:
ROA = Profit Margin X Asset Utilisation Ratio
Retention Ratio + Dividend Payout Ratio = 100%
What is this bank's Internal Capital Generation Rate? (NOTE: By default, the unit of the answer is %. The answer must be input with two (2) decimal places, i.e. if the answer is 12%, please input 12.00)